I haven't read the article, but from your description and the title I assume that it only deals with the question, whether torture "works". As far as I know, this question was last time seriously discussed in the 18th century. If I may summarise the result of the debate (which began around 400 BC in Rome):
- torture may or may not work, there is no reason to believe any statement under torture because it may just have been made in order to end torture. In the end the result is inclusive at best.
- torture used to be part of the regular procedures usually to make a defendant confess IN LIGHT OF EVIDENCE indicating he was guilty. The last part was important, because individual guilt often had implications for family, village, etc.
- in light of these two main lines of justification, reason 2 disappeared from most (European) law tradition, as punishment was now directed only on the individuals involved in a plot, so a confession was not necessary nor the preference to undergo torture in order to save the family or other group. Concerning reason 1, mainstream opted for the precautionary approach: if inconclusive then abstain (eg. from torture).
Additionally there were moral concerns, already voiced here, so I won't repeat them. Interestingly enough is the fact, that torturing countries don't tend to have lower crime or better clear-up rates. Only higher conviction rates, which are better explained by other factors such as low degrees of press freedom, transparency and winning coalition size. No wonder it "works" in the Middle East…