See with agreement on a point, we may now get somewhere. You have acknowledged I am correct in that, under the present circumstances, gun control laws will not accomplish much, though it appears you are contesting my second stated premise, or more accurately, claim that while there may be no point at the present time in a future frame of reference one may look back and nevertheless claim that such a law- ineffective on its own in its original timeframe- did resolve to progress towards some conclusion. That, basically, this law falls under the old phrase "The whole is greater than the sum of its parts", that while this law may hold effectively zero value standing alone, if enjoined with other similar ones it may effect change. Ignoring the mathematical principle of operating on or with infinitesimals (from which I could conceivably formulate a fourth/fifth premise invalidating this resolution), I will let that point stand.
At the risk of going back on my promise of not debating philosophical points, I'd like further insight into this point you raise. I will limit myself to merely ask questions to glean further enlightenment on your perspective on this portion of the issue- afterall mutual understanding leads to mutual respect, and from mutual respect even ideas that are nominally irreconcilable may be discussed maturely. I will not take issue with your reasoning (though I may ask for further elaboration) to remain true on my word. I must for the sake of completeness attempt to interpret your views, but I sincerely hope that you do not take this interpretation as a challenge, and I freely welcome you to correct me if at any point I am wrong.
I will use the opportunity to further expound on my competing views on the issue as well, with the sincere hope this armistice for mutual understanding instead of combative points-scoring will be respected. True to my previous positions, I will not directly address any contention of my views, but instead see them as inquiries for further elaboration.
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It seems on the surface that your position regarding all things is fairly straightforward, and based on my research into the field indeed has a strong history behind it- indeed the Peace of Westphalia 1648 established the right for sovereign bodies to determine their own course without interference of other sovereign bodies. This was mainly aimed at the concept of religion; the Westphalian treaties ended many (but not all) of the religions conflicts that rocked Europe since the beginning of the Protestant reformations.
I see a disconnect between the 'level' we are looking towards when we are implicitly defining the term 'right', that I hope was suitably highlighted in my phrasing of that paragraph. In one stroke, the treaties ensure that
1) Nations have the right to determine their own courses
and
2) This is a right that nations have by definition of being it's own sovereign entity
If we were to take this example and generalize it for the purposes of analysis, you argue exclusively from the perspective of number one, and I argue exclusively from the perspective of number two.
This is probably an over-simplification of both our positions.
We both appear to hold the view that an INDIVIDUAL'S moral code has no impact on the STATE'S moral code. That is, we both cede that which we believe to be correct is in no way relating to what the state should act upon, should others disagree with us.
You claim this, however, to be a moral or philosophical position. I personally think that is not quite the case; it may be a political position, or a sort of philosophical overlay, but at least what I am gleaning from your most recent post is that there are cases where you will not accept what laws are passed as, by definition, right or wrong. That is, you do not see the state as an absolute moral authority.
IF that is indeed the case, and again please correct me if I'm wrong, this too is a point we agree on.
And, if we agree on that point, there are two questions I would like to ask you, for further explanation, and fully acknowledging I cannot then go on to criticize your answers to them and understand that the positions you hold as evidenced by them are unassailable by mere physical fact, as metaphysical constructs. Please understand I do not ask these as loaded questions, and if the delivery is warranted as such I freely invite you to rephrase the question to your liking before answering.
1) Do you believe that the state has the power to, if given consent by any part or the whole of its population, to infringe upon any rights the people may have? That is, considering above the understood agreement on the point that the state is not a moral authority, do you believe the state is nevertheless above said moral authority in its operation?
and then,
2) Do you believe there are, if any, rights that an individual may have that the state (if above the moral authority) cannot transgress upon?
Subset to question two, dependent on your answer, would be the following;
2a) If such rights exist, what are they?
2b) Would a state infringing on these rights be illegitimate, or, would its people being thus infringed have reason to then consider the state illegitimate?