@semck:
"So first of all, the Council of Nicea did not set the Biblical canon. I'm not sure where you got that idea. It is not even clear that they discussed the canon, though they may have. For a well-sourced discussion of Nicea and the canon, see
http://www.tertullian.org/rpearse/nicaea.html"
http://www.ntcanon.org/Bibles_of_Constantine.shtml
Constantine ordered 50 Bibles, which were made in 331/332, so the canon was being set by then, causing scholars to believe that, given the Council at Nicea's large gathering of Church leaders, that was when they at least started deciding what was canon and what was not...
Not precise by any means, but still, at some point, it DID occur where they decided what was in and what was out, and likely before Constantine's Bibles were completed (I'd cite the History Channel as well here, but I'm really not sure how great a source that is, given its predilection towards showing people drive trucks across ice or talk about UFOs or Nostradamus...granted it had actual Biblical scholars talking about it, but still, it IS the History Channel...*shrugs*)
"Second of all, would you say that I should ignore intertextualism or literary interconnections in my copy of "The Complete Plays of William Shakespeare" because it does not include the disputed "Double Falsehood"? I mean, Theobald said it was taken from a Shakespearean manuscript. How can I trust anything in the book if they just arbitrarily decided not to include possibly valid plays?"
Actually...
1. It's supposed to be ADAPTED from a Shakespeare play, the same way Shakespeare "adapted" early comedies like "The Comedy of Errors" from plays by Plautus, so...
2. IT's NOT a work of Shakespeare, and at most--if all Fletcher's claims are true--it'd be an ADAPTATION of a Shakespeare play, and thus
3. No more part of the Shakespearean Canon than the plays by Plautus Shakespeare took inspiration from; where inspiration comes/what is adapted afterwards is not canon, what IS canon is what the man actually wrote, ergo
4. The Shakespearean Canon is made up of...what the man actually wrote, the 37 plays (38 if you want to count "The Two Noble Kinsmen," as most collections now do, but as they state up front, that wasn't Shakespeare writing a solo play, he collaborated with a friend and the friend probably did more of the actual work, "The Tempest" is still considered his last real play, TTNK is him getting out of the house a bit during retirement to help out a friend...there are other plays some attribute to Shakespeare, but don't have the evidence to back their entry in yet, so the list is memorably at 37, 38 if you count TTNK, 39 if you count TTNK and "Cardenio" as a lost work, though what that was is uncertain and may have been an early draft of a play we do have now under one of the titles in the Canon, it's uncertain), 154 sonnets, and several long poems that can be attributed to William Shakespeare, generally via the First Quarto, Second Quarto, First Folio, or sometimes all three (or more) sources, as is the conflicting case with "Hamlet," where again, editors and scholars have debated for 400 years which versions are truer and which are "better." In any case
5. As such, we have easy grounds for Shakespeare Intertextualism...after all, there are simple rules--one man, if he wrote it, it's in, if he didn't write it, it's out (as with the case with "Double Falsehood," which is claimed to be an adaptation and is a century too late in any case...18th century play, so clearly not Shakespeare's, even if Fletcher was telling the truth and he was adapting it from "Cardenio," again, we don't include the plays Shakespeare adapted from Plautus in the canon, or "Rosencrantz and Guildenstern Are Dead" which Stoppard partially adapted from "Hamlet," JUST what Shakespeare wrote HIMSELF) and so as they're NOT arbitrarily leaving out plays,
6. You can be intertextual with Shakespeare, and even if I were to be be REALLY generous and allow the argument that some works from that era of disputed authorship belong to Shakespeare--"Arden of Favisham" and one of the Edward plays are two examples--then we'd still be able to be intertextual with the plays we have in a literary sense for the reasons given, that they're all by the same man, and thus meet that rule of Shakespearean authorship for entrance into the canon, and it's thus not a collection of various plays by various authors slapped together and called "The Complete Works of Shakespeare" but JUST the works of Shakespeare, so
8. Even if we're missing some works, literarily, it's still all Shakespeare--no Marlowe or Kyd or Dekker to be found in "The Complete Works"--so it's all the same canon and, more importantly, MEANT to be together, that is, the Henriad of plays can be said to have an intended flow and flowing themes intertextually, because the same person wrote the 4 works that comprise it, so it seems reasonable that he intended them to interplay with one another as he links them together intentionally, whereas
9. What we have with the Bible are several authors--NOT ONE--over a span of many years or decades or even centuries writing several different versions of several stories and then having ONE of the many versions of SOME of those stories placed in an order SOME of those reading the texts centuries later thought was correct in THEIR view...so it's necessarily muddled, too many chefs in the kitchen, so to speak, rather than just one author of 37 plays, 154 sonnets, and several long poems in an order we can roughly give to some extent thanks to the fact he actually intentionally linked some plays, referenced some plays within other plays (ie, "Julius Caesar" is referenced in "Hamlet), references events going on in the real world, thus helping with dating, and so on, so that while there's still some debate as to what the precisest order is, it's still pretty generally known what the Early, Middle, and Later plays are, what order they came in...unless you're going the "Anonymous" Oxfordian Theory route and want to argue the plays were written by someone totally different 10-15+ years earlier than all the evidence suggests, in which case...all the evidence suggests otherwise and you'll be taken about as seriously by most scholars of Shakespeare as "The da Vinci Code," as the evidence is heavily in favor of AT LEAST the dates and more than enough (especially for the time) suggests Shakespeare's authorship is perfectly valid, so AT MOST you can have a fringe theory, which is all those are and we all know how reliable fringe theories are and how respected they are, THUS
10. The Shakespearean Canon=Coherent and definitely an intended canon, The Bible=Haphazard and a Compilation of different texts that may or may not have been intended by their authors to be linked or to be linked to the texts they are linked to, and so while you can certainly say "I think Text A and Text B have some similar thematic points," regarding the Bible, you don't have the same ability to say "A and B are connected" because they may not have been INTENDED to be connected...for example, something in Exodus that appears to tie back into Genesis may well have been authored with The Life of Adam and Eve in mind instead, and in any case
11. To say "Shakespeare's canon is incomplete without 'Double Falsehood,' ergo the canon is incomplete and unworkable" invites ME to say "Well, Dante BASED 'The Inferno' off Biblical texts the same way Fletcher claims he based DF off Cardenio...and ditto Milton and "Paradise Lost" and on and on--
Derivative works =/= Original works of a canon...
And a Coherent Canon all authored by one person =/= A Collection/Compilation put together by different people over many years, decades, and centuries.