Dingleberry, that's what in my mother tongue we call "trying to climb mirrors", i.e.: a purely formal defence line that has little if any relevance to the real word facts.
Following your logic, one could support the thesis that Jews were oppressing pre-nazi Germans, because they had economical POWER in a period in which German was on its knees... clearly a statement that could be formally right (I never researched myself on the issue) but that bare no relationship with historical facts. Incidentally, this was also one of the points used by nazi propaganda to foster hate towards Jews.
For the sake of providing information on the specific example you brought up: Arabs in Palestine had little if any political/economic/decisional power since centuries. The Ottoman empire had imported and imposed on Arabs its structures, rulers, staff, culture, laws, etc and Arabs were essentially subjects of the Emperor. This was one of the points that western powers leveraged to get the support of the Arabs during the WWI. The promises made to the Arabs were many, all of them in the direction of "independence" and "power" after the fall of the Ottoman empire.
As a matter of facts, though, the Sykes–Picot agreement was signed in 1916, going in the opposite direction (still Arabs under the rule of somebody else). Simultaneously, the fourth and fifth Aliyah's (migration to Palestine of Jews from the diaspora) took place. Zionism was a policy actively supported by the British, as to shift the demographical balance towards an equilibrium more in favour to the western powers.
Incidentally, the Arab Revolt that you initially quoted was triggered exactly by these events, namely by the support of the British towards the settlement of 250.000 more Jews. The revolt started as a strike, to which, in a way typical to the British empire, the British forces reacted with violence and imprisonment without trials. Paradoxically (given that you brought up the example to support the "Palestinian oppression on Jews"), the Jews were involved in the violences with paramilitary groups helping out the British in the dirty work.
Your example of "Palestinian oppression" is the only one I know of, in which the "oppressor" got 5000 people dead, while the "oppressed" 400. (source of these numbers: wikipedia).
So really... the "oppression of pre-1948-Palestinians onto Jews" is an ideological/propaganda tale crafted to legitimise the horrors of the current apartheid regime. IT WAS SIMPLY NEVER THERE.
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Anyone care for a quick game so i can get the jist of this?!
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