Okay Oscar,
I'm pretty sure that agreeing to disagree was all that would have been accomplished. My argument was more about the efficacy of your interpretation of "Gilbeah's Crime" than specifically about the larger topic of rape within the context of Scripture. So, if you'll permit me a concluding statement as well. Seems fair you got the opening, right?
I never thought that you were stating Christians condone rape, and understood that your argument was about Biblical interpretation. So fear not about that.
As to this statement
"Many Christians, as you have just done yourself, go to great lengths to reason around that as they try to reconcile their own subjective/modern morals, with their belief that the outdated iron age morals professed in the Bible are absolute."
I'd say, in response, that what I've done is examine an example of literature to evaluate another person's literary critique of it. It is no more "going to great lengths" than I would have done with any other literary work. Indeed I have gone to much greater lengths with many other non-biblical works. All I really did here was to examine the story and give my reasons for coming to an opposite view. The textual evidence that I cited did seem to back up my assertions, which is what any literary analysis should entail. I can only say that it is assumed that any person will have biases when approaching any text. What is really pertinent is looking more deeply into the text, and related ones, to shed light on its meaning. It appears to me that your desire to show Biblical text as outdated iron age morals has lead you to some insupportable conclusions when looking at the text in greater depth. For instance, I certainly question whether military convention that spans all (or nearly all) cultures equates to legal interpretation. Again, as I said, the meaning of use seems to be up to the reader. Even so, I’d say some data on how widespread rape was among these particular armies would be needed to support your stance. Otherwise it seems neutral as I conceded it was. Neither condoning nor expressly forbidding a certain act does not constitute condoning it.
As to the second statement, it's really another argument unto itself; isn't it? I'll have to acknowledge the claim for what it is and decline getting into a totally separate debate.