And some cities in North America still have laws that can send you to jail for spitting on the sidewalk.
Can't draw an ought from an is.
You can say that the fact of the law is sufficient to impose an obligation to obey the law, but you can't from that say that this bit of law ought to be law. Many of these debates are confused and muddled by confusing this.
That's why, for example, I said I would not pronounce myself on whether or not he's guilty in the eye of the law: I'm not equipped to justify my claim (not trained sufficiently, not in possession of relevant clues and testimonies) and the court system is built so that it's up to them to decide on that level. What I did mean to discuss here, and what I think some are discussing as well, is whether or not what happened ought to be considered as self-defense or as murder (or, maybe more likely, as manslaughter).
What to me is the most striking point in this debate, is that words like guilty and innocent don't apply very well. A man is dead. By his hand. He is responsible of his death as he caused it (physically caused it... enough with the crap of what lead to that moment... he pulled the trigger... that's all I mean to say here). The question is whether or not he was justified in doing so. Ought he have behaved differently.
Well, I believe he should indeed have behaved differently and that he had the opportunity to do so (and was in fact advised to do so). Because of that, I think that his killing of a man was not justified.
Now, will that pass as second degree murder? Manslaughter (I believe I have read here that the jury could find him guilty of that even if that's not the charge)? Or as self-defense? Here the interpretation of the law in light of many details that, I believe, escape most if not all of us will be the determining factor. And it is here I believe none of us is able to say how the law should be applied.