@ulytau:
"Dip has a point, God is your closest friend and formal language creates distance, he has no needs for formalities when you pray to him. You cannot open your heart and embrace God when you distance yourself from him."
I suppose maybe that's my own personal bias--
I've never seen God as a "friendly figure," as I had the wrathful, vengeful, do-what-I-say-or-else OT God growing up, and now I'm an atheist, so I definitely don't see God as a friend.
Jesus I can see speaking and being spoken to intimately and as a friend, again, he seems like that sort of character/guy...
I suppose to use a comparison:
Jesus seems like that A+ super-popular brain-and-jack super-student that'd win Prom King and Student Body President in high school, and you'd want as a buddy...at least in theory...
Whereas God seems more like a military drill sergeant to me--definitely not a friendly sort of guy, and certainly not someone I'd be informal with.
"You're missing a big part of the issue here, obiwanobiwan. The Bible is entirely a work of translation.Perhaps it' as simple as Greek and Hebrew having familiar and formal forms for "you" and the distinction was kept. Or they don't and context demanded such a construction in English. The KJV is just the already existing Scriptures put into the English of the sixteenth century or whenever it came out, so you can't just look at the issue without remembering that these works were originally created in totally different tongues."
Hmmm...I wonder what it is like in the original Greek/Hebrew, if that's the case, as again...apparently there is a large group here who see God as being someone you can be informal with and friendly, and I just don't see it in his character.
@Mujus:
" In Old English, there was no formal/informal dichotomy, just singular plural. Singular was thou-thee-thy-thine, and plural was ye-you-your-yours. Hebrew also has no formal/informal dichotomy, but does have both male and female singular and plural forms, basically you (female), you (male), you (females), and you (males). The Old Testament of the Bible was also translated into to Greek, which had singular and plural forms of "you." When William Tyndale translated the Bible into English, pre-King James, he kept the singular-plural dichotomy by using thou for singular you and ye for plural you, and even though by the time of the KJV many parts of England were not using both forms, it was the most accurate translation of the Hebrew and Greek words, so they used the two forms. Later, Hebrew started using female forms for more formal uses, or so I understand; Greek started using the singular forms as informal and the plural forms as formal; and English used thou among equals in informal situations and ye when speaking upward socially, as the Anglo-Saxons had to do with the Norman French conquerors. It's interesting also to note that in Sweden, the common people have the right to say "du til könig," meaning that they can use the informal with the king--and this even when the language was super-formal, up until about WWII I guess. As for the informal with God, Jesus called him "Abba," meaning Dad,"or Papa--obviously a close connection."
1. Well, that's interesting if the formal/informal wasn't already there, though I'd somewhat caution against that, on Hebrew at least, as that was largely an oral-tradition language at the time the earliest parts of the OT would have begun to have been written down, and surely the priests/rabbis would have treated God's word (and the parts I'm questioning here, ie, the Commandments) with great formality.
You just can't SAY the Ten Commandments informally and mean it seriously; when they're said and meant, they're meant in a serious, formal, and arguably dictatorial and/or regal tone...
So LATER translations using an informal, if there was none to begin with, is maybe just a case of losing something via time and translation?
Because surely no one would have originally said the Decalogue as if they were informal, God being condescending to the Hebrew people, or both?
As for the last sentence--
I cna surely see JESUS being informal with God...he's his "Son," the second-in-command of the establishment, as it were (and I know, he's really God and 3 and 1 and God on Earth and all of that and so not REALLY "second," I'm just using a figure of speech from my day...maybe the same way the KJV were trying to translate the Hebrew words into their own vernacular? Though again I'd ask why use "thou" if it was archaic already and also somewhat inaccurate, unless, as someone suggested, they wanted that archaic touch, in which case...
Well, Bible readers, would you treat the KJV as an accurate, "good" translation, or is it maybe more of a stylized translation, and there are more accurate and literal--if drier--translations out there?)