@Thucy: Its not a zero-sum game though.
That 'taxation' causes deadweight and is a market failure.
For the example of unobtainium were assuming this is a mineral.
There are 4 reasons for Jack to have more then John:
1. Jack has more efficient mines (probably due to better technology), making each mine better, allowing him to mine more.
2. Jack works harder, while Johns mines are only open for 1 month a year, Jacks are open for 9, meaning Jack can mine more.
3. Johns mines have 'dried' up. The amount of unobtainium in Johns mines is rare, making it harder to find and therefore sell.
4. Combination of 2 or more of the 3 above circumstances.
Now using supply and demand graphs we can use short run supply for year 1, and long run supply for year 2.
At the moment Jack supplies 900 units and John supplies 100. When the demand increases by 200, Jack, who already has more units, can more cheaply increase supply, at the same time his margin of revenue is higher, meaning he can engage in a supply war against John and easily win. This means while John spends all his profits at sustaining his current supply, Jack is using revenue to expand the industry.
In the end capitalism has determined that Jack wins the race. Regardless of the reason for Jack's success, he is more successful then John, and the fact that in man power years (900 units in 1 year vs 100. I would say hours but in one of the 3 situations Jack works longer and so therefore it has to be on a year by year basis) Jack is 9 times as efficient. Using Jacks wealth to produce more wealth at the end of the second year he is 11 times as efficient.
This means that the market dictates that, regardless of the reason, Jack will produce 11 times as many units.
Given that there are 2 people the market has 2 solutions:
#1. The free market has spoken, John goes bankrupt and has to adopt Jack's policies. This means that now 2200 units can be produced. Due to Jack being the CEO he will probably keep most. This is assuming that Jack is not a monopoly now and doesn't intentionally decrease supply to increase revenue.
#2. Bailout John and start subsidizing him so that he can compete with Jack. As a result while Jack continues to produce 1100 units, his profit margin is the same as Jack, who only produces 100. In reality his profit margin after subsidization is lower then Johns, cause of the costs to Jack to get to the money. Realizing that by decreasing supply Jack does so and reduces his supply to a level playing field of John.
Because of the subsidization John ends up making more profit and buys out Jack raising his production to 400 units (assuming the same amount of wealth was created).
Although government regulations now force him to give half of his wealth to Jack, John still makes more money in this example and is happier.
Final Production (in units) for the two examples:
Freemarket:
Jack 2200
John 0
Total: 2200
Highly Regulated Market:
Jack 200
John 200
Total: 400
Yes John is better off in example 2, but over all the economy is much weaker (2200 vs 400). Of course this is assuming long term effects of markets happen instantly, but it still demonstrates the importance of the free market.
Any tax or subsidy is a market failure because of this, as it makes it so industries with competitive advantages (Jack in the above example) compete on the same field as industries that don't (John in the above example). This makes any competitive advantage useless and makes them not worth having. This above example proves that there is no such thing as a zero-sum economy.
Even if you add scarcity to the equation. Scientists have determined that there are only 12000 units of unobtainium left on the planet.
Currently Jack produces 900 a year and John produces 100. After 10 years Jack should therefore have 10800 units and John should have 1200.
However Jack decides to increase productivity to make sure he gets more of the final pie. Now its 1100 a year vs 100. In the end Jack gets 11000 and John only gets 1000. As a result of this increase in productivity Jack gets 200 more units and John gets 200 less, being zero sum right? Wrong. What the increase in production means an increase in supply meaning a decrease in price.
If the initial Price was of each unit was $1, the new price would be (assuming unit-elastic demand) 83 cents, meaning in reality, Jack would make $9130, and John would make $830. This increase in production decreased Jacks revenue by $1670 and decreased Johns by $370.
However keeping in mind example A was over a 12 year period and example B was over a 10 year one. Yearly revenues of John and Jack are:
Jack:
Example A: $900
Example B: $913
John:
Example A: $100
Example B: $83
Jack makes $13 more and John makes $17 less, so this increase in production cause a decreased wealth by $4.
Now from Jacks perspective I personally wouldn't increase supply cause the cost of production would increase by more then my income, and I would actually make less money.
A 22% increase in production caused a 1.4% increase in income.
Assuming the cost to make each unit is 40 cents:
Jack:
Example A Profits: $6480 ($540/year)
Example B Profits: $4730 ($473/year)
John:
Example A Profits: $660 ($66/year)
Example B Profits: $430 ($43/year)
Jack looses $67/year and John looses $23/year, simply because Jack increased production on an already scarce resource. The reason for a loss (and not a gain) was probably because of the straight line method I was using. As the total supply of the good decreased (from 12000 to 0) the price would increase and because scarcer resources are harder to find, the quantity supplied would probably decrease. Unfortunately my limited knowledge of economics does know who to adjust the profits taking this into account.
The point is the economy isn't zero sum, so making the assumption that it is makes the rest of your arguement invalid.
@nigee: Part of the problem with that is that:
1. Banks are cheaper to bailout then people
2. the money required to bailout people was cause massive inflation, and in the end the people would have to spend most of it to cover the rising costs of goods, rather then pay of debt.
@Orathaic and gman: The fact is wealth is created (even Thucy admitted it in his example) and whenever wealth is created, it doesn't need to be taken by someone else and therefore is no longer zero sum.
The best graph I can use to show that the world isn't zero sum is this:
http://www.economist.com/blogs/dailychart/2011/06/quantifying-history
The people of the 21st century have more wealth per capita then any other time in history. From which century did we take this wealth from? Did we take it from the first century, who compared to us were very poor? No, we took made it from ourselves.
If I make a car, I have added a car into the economy, if I mined the iron, smelted the steel and individually made every single part myself, I didn't take wealth from anyone to make that car, but that car was still made and the wealth of the world increased as a result.
only those who have no understanding of economics make the assumption that the economy is zero sum.